Measure Theory/Monotone Functions Differentiable

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Monotone Functions

Differentiable A.E.

Although a monotonically increasing function might fail to be differentiable at uncountably many points, the next-best thing would be for the set of "failure points" to have measure zero. That is to say, we might instead hope that a monotonically increasing function is differentiable almost everywhere.

Indeed this turns out to be true! However, it will require a significant journey to prove that it is true.

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Recall that every function of bounded variation can be decomposed into a difference of two monotonically increasing functions. Now assume that every monotone function is differentiable a.e. Prove that every function of bounded variation is differentiable a.e.

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Assume throughout this lesson that f:[a,b]ℝ is monotonically increasing on the compact interval [a,b].

Where the Upper Derivative Is Infinite

One way in which the derivative may fail to exist at x is for D+f(x)=. We will prove first that the set of all points at which this happens is null.

To approximate this set, we first define the set Ec={x(a,b):cD+f(x)}, which is effectively the set of points at which the upper-right derivative is "large".

We would like to show that Ec becomes small as c becomes large.

In order to do so, we can recall the mean value theorem, which tells us that f(x)=f(b)f(a)ba for some x in the interval, if f is differentiable on (a,b). If cf(x) is a lower bound on this derivative, then ba1c(f(b)f(a)).

The left-hand side, b-a, is the measure of the set [a,b], which in our setting is like λ(Ec). Inspired by this, we will try to prove

λ(Ec)1c(f(b)f(a))

Let εℝ+ and consider the family of all intervals where the inequality holds.

π’ž={[r,s](a,b):f(s)f(r)c(sr), and r<s}

The reason for considering such a collection is that it may be easier to measure, as a collection of intervals, than the more "chaotic" set Ec. Of course to be "effective" we will need this collection to cover Ec.

Unfortunately the set π’ž may not cover Ec, and if you set out to prove that it does, you will notice a difficulty in one step.

However, this difficulty is resolved if, instead of π’ž we let c(0,c) and then define the collection

π’ž={[r,s](a,b):f(s)f(r)c(sr)}

Then π’ž is a cover, as you will demonstrate in the exercise below.

Notice that if xEc then by definition c<cD+f(x) which puts some "space" between c' and Df(x). Therefore there is some hℝ+ such that c<sup0<t<h{f(x+t)f(x)t}, therefore there is some 0<t<h for which c<f(x+t)f(x)t.

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Use the observations above to prove that, for each xEc and for each δℝ+ there is some Iπ’ž such that xI and (I)<δ. Hint: Consider the interval [x,x+t].

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However, there is even a problem with π’ž. This collection will have a ton of pathological overlap between the various intervals which it contains.

Therefore, what we really seek is to select from it some finite, disjoint sub-collection which is close enough to Ec.

Vitali Coverings

The kinds of concern above occurs often enough that it is worth handling generally.

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Assume E has finite outer-measure and β„± covers E in the sense of Vitali. Show that for any δℝ+ there exists a finite disjoint sub-collection {I1,,In}β„± such that

λ*(Ek=1nIk)<δ

Here are some guiding steps.

1) Let π’ͺ be an open set such that Eπ’ͺ and λ*(π’ͺ)<λ*(E)+δ.  (If it is not clear, then you may want to prove that such a set exists.)
2) Construct the collection β„±β„± where Iβ„± if Iπ’ͺ.  Argue that β„± also covers E in the sense of Vitali.
3) Inductively construct a finite collection of {Ik}k=1nβ„± by first picking an arbitrary I=I1β„±.  
4) Next construct, for each 1m and collection {Ik}k=1m, the collection of all intervals in β„± which are disjoint from all of the intervals so far.
 β„±'m={Iβ„±:Ik=1mIk}
Also construct the set of all lengths of these intervals in β„±'m and argue that this is a nonempty set of real numbers bounded above, and therefore has a supremum, call it sm.  Infer that there is some Im+1β„±'m with sm/2<(Im+1).
5) For each 1m argue that sm+1<sm/2.
6) The path home should be not very hard to find from here.  

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Template:Robelbox Explain why the open set π’ͺ was necessary in the proof above. Template:Robelbox/close

Template:Robelbox We have proved Vitali's Lemma for the purposes of proving our theorem about monotone functions. However, there is a further property that this finite collection, {Ik}k=1n, has which may prove useful later. We might as well observe and prove it now, while we're here.

Prove that Ek=1n(5*Ik). Recall that the notation 5*Ik means the interval with the same center as Ik but five times the width.

Suggestions for how to proceed: Let xE and of course if xk=1nIk then the proof is finished.

1) Observe that if Ek=1nIk then the proof is finished.  Otherwise we only need to consider the case that x∉k=1nIk.
2) Infer that there is an Iβ„±n with xI.
3) Note that although we only took the intervals I1,,In in the exercise above, the sequence of intervals continues beyond this.  Argue that there must be some Ik which intersects I.  Hint: If this were false there would be a positive lower bound on the sequence sm.  Call N the least index for which IN intersects I.  
4) Argue that (I)<2(IN) and infer that x5*IN. 

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Finishing the Proof

Returning to the proof from before, use the fact that π’ž is a Vitali covering to construct a finite disjoint collection of intervals,

{I1=[r1,s1],,In=[rn,sn]}

such that λ*(Eck=1nIk)<ε.


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1. Decompose Ec into two parts, the part inside k=1nIk and the part outside. Use subadditivity to infer that

λ(Ec)<1ck=1n(f(sk)f(rk))+ε1c(f(b)f(a))+ε

Then let ε0 and cc.

2. Now use the above, together with the continuity of measure, to conclude that the set of points at which the upper-left derivative is infinite.

Then argue that the same is true for the lower-right, upper-left, and upper-right derivatives.

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Unequal Derivatives Almost Nowhere

We now go after the other way in which a function might fail to be differentiable, which is for the derivatives to be finite but unequal. Again we will focus initially on the right-handed side but will later generalize to the inequality of any of the derivatives.

That is to say, we will show that {x(a,b):D+f(x)<D+f(x)} has measure zero. Very similar to the previous proof, we would like to build a countable sequence of sets which approximate this set and then use the continuity of measure at the end.

Just as before, we need a bit of space between the two derivatives (although this time we will look at what happens as the space becomes arbitrarily close to zero). Therefore we will define

Ec,d={x(a,b):D+f(x)<c<d<D+f(x)}

Let εℝ+ and we will try to show that Ec,d is small.

As in the previous part regarding where the derivatives go to infinity, we will leverage the Vitali Covering Lemma. It will help later if, moreover, this is situated inside of some open set.

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Show that there is an open set π’ͺ such that Eπ’ͺ(a,b) with the property that λ*(Ec,d)<λ*(π’ͺ)+ε.

Then define a collection of closed intervals that are each inside of π’ͺ, in a way analogous to what was done for the infinite derivative case. Argue that this is a cover in the sense of Vitali.

Complete rest of the argument in a way that is strongly parallel to the proof for the case of infinity, until you reach

λ*(Ec,d)1dk=1n(f(sk)f(rk))+ε

and then justify and use the fact that f(sk)f(rk)cλ*(Ec,d).

The path to the final result should not be very hard (nor very easy!) to find from here. But do your best.

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